4.75.2 State the rules pertaining to operating VFR in the various classes of airspace. CAR 91 Advisory Circular AC61-3 Revision 25 & AIP ENR

Operating VFR in class C airspace, 

• clearance is required day and night
• VFR flights are separated from IFR flights

•  SVFR flights are separated from other SVFR flights

•  VFR flights are not separated from other VFR flights day and night

• VFR flights are provided with traffic information about other VFR flights and traffic avoidance advice is provided on pilots requests

Operating VFR in Class D airspace, 

• a clearance is required day and night
• VFR flights  are not separated from IFR flights day or night
  
• SVFR flights are separated from IFR flights 
• SVFR flights are separated from other SVFR flights if the visibility is less than 5 km
• IFR flights are provided with traffic information about VFR flights day and night
•  VFR flights are provided with traffic information about IFR flights day and night
• Both IFR and VFR flights are provided with traffic avoidance advice on pilots request

  

  Operating VFR in Class G airspace

• a clearance is not required day and night
• IFR flights receive traffic information about other IFR]flights;
• VFR flights may receive information about IFR and other VFR flights on pilot’s request

 

  

  

  

  

  

4.74.6 State the requirements and limitations on an aircraft operating under VFR in transponder mandatory airspace without an operating transponder. CAR 91 & AIP ENR

• If you intend to operate without an operable transponder in TM airspace, you must obtain authorisation from the ATC unit, as part of the ATC clearance to enter that airspace
• If a transponder has a partial or total failure you must advise ATC asap.

  

  

  

  

4.74.4 Describe the procedures required of pilots operating transponders. AIP ENR

Operating transponders;

•  ON: Transponder is on and will reply to interrogations but will send Mode A only
  
•  ALT: Transponder is on and will reply to interrogation, both Mode A and Mode C will be transmitted. Usually used when airborne
  

•  SBY: Transponder is ON but will not reply to interrogations. Select this function just before take-off and re-select  OFF soon as practicable after landing

• OFF – the transponder is off

• TST: Transponder test function
  

•  IDENT;  When pressed this highlights the aircraft radar symbol on the screen to flash so the controller can positively identify aircraft

  

  

  

 

[[IDENT]]: 

When instructed to SQUAWK IDENT, push this button

  

4.74.2 State the requirements for the operation of transponders within the New Zealand FIR. CAR 91 & AIP ENR

A Pilot-in-Command of an aircraft operating in Transponder Mandatory airspace must 

• operate transponder in Mode A or C
• must set Transponder SSR code to the code assigned for the flight
  
• If not assigned an SSR code by ATC, set code in accordance with Table 2
  
• In the event of an emergency set transponder SSR code to 7700
  

• In the event of a loss of communications set transponder SSR code to 7600

• In the event of a hijack set transponder SSR code to 7500
• In un-controlled airspace set transponder to code stated in the allocation table; eg  1200 VFR aeroplane / 1500 for civil helicopters
• A Pilot-in-Command of an aircraft operating in Transponder Mandatory airspace must immediately advise ATC if there is a partial or total transponder failure
  

  

  

  

4.72.4 Describe situations where ATC may assign cruising altitudes not in accordance with the VFR table of cruising altitudes. AIP ENR

ATC may assign cruising altitudes not in accordance with VFR table of cruising altitudes;

•  in an emergency and/or 
• where a hazard has been reported or forecast.

  

4.72.2 State the altitude requirements when cruising VFR within the New Zealand FIR. CAR 91 & AIP ENR [vfr_Rule p1=”91.313″]

• The PiC of an aircraft operating within the NZ FIR under VFR must not maintain level cruising flight at any flight level below FL 160 when an area QNH zone setting is 980 hPa or less

• Cruising VFR outside the Control Zone –  VFR = 1000 ft plus 500 ft
• Southbound  – heading 090-270 deg    EVEN levels

• Cruising VFR outside the Control Zone VFR = 1000 ft plus 500 ft
• Northbound  – heading 270-090 deg  ODD levels 

  

4.70.6 Describe QNH zones and state when zone QNH should be used. AIP ENR

NZ is divided into 12 QNH zones which have vertical limits from the surface to 13,000 ft.  The area QNH for the zone can be obtained from ATC, Flight Service or Flight Information.

 When flying outside control zones and clear of an aerodrome, the altimeter is to be set to the area QNH for the zone you are flying in

 When in airspace Class C and D the altimeter shall be set to the QNH advised by ATC.

  

  

4.70.4 State the procedure to use to obtain an altimeter setting when QNH is not available prior to takeoff and the requirement to obtain a QNH once in flight. AIP ENR

When departing from an aerodrome where no QNH setting is available,  you must set aerodrome elevation on the altimeter, prior to departure and obtain the appropriate altimeter setting from an ATS unit as soon as possible 

  

  

4.70.2 Explain the altimeter setting requirements for flight under VFR. CAR 91 & AIP ENR [vfr_Rule p1=”91.239″]

Regional or area QNH is set when flying by reference to altitude above mean sea level below the transition level

 Standard pressure is set when flying under VFR by reference to flight levels above the transition altitude

  

  

4.63.10 Describe the situations where the normal separation may be reduced. AIP ENR

  Loss of separation can occur in the following scenarios;

• If a pilot enters notified airspace without a clearance
• Inadvertently by pilot workload
• Pilot inattention with the aircraft deviating from track
  
• Manoeuvering to avoid visually perceived loss of separation from another aircraft
  
•  When avoiding  severe weather in IFR or attempting to remain in VMC in VFR, 
• When an ATC instruction is not received or understood
  
• If a pilot receives a TCAS RA but fails to follow through accurately
  
• Aircraft performance eg rate of climb
  
• Breakdown of air-ground communications
•  A potential danger situation not detected early enough by ATC 
  

•  If a controller issues a clearance that creates a conflict with a neighbouring aircraft due to blind spot effect